My husband has been working at the same job for 18 months. He has NEVER used a single day of vacation time, and in 18 months has been sick once. He did not get paid for the sick day, as we assumed, and that was that. However, he took a day off last week and informed the pay roll woman to credit it towards his vacation time since he knew he had a ton accrued since he’d never used any.
Today, his boss called him to tell him that he has no time accrued and what he did is going to jeopardize his job.
This is a very small mom and pop place that does not put record of accrued vaca time on the pay checks, and does not provide an organized way for us to see how much he has accrued. They did, however, tell him when he was hired, that after his probationary period (2 months) he would start accruing the vaca and could start putting it to use after 1 year.
Can anyone refer me to legal sites that can either confirm or deny the truth to what she is telling him? I do not feel this is correct, however the sites I am finding are not answering my questions…